Prove that $f(x)=cos(x^2)$ is not uniformly continuous on the set R.
I started out by solving $cos(x_k^2)$=1⟹cosX=1 ⟹ $X=2_k\pi$
$x_k^2$=$2k\pi$=>$x_k$⟹$\sqrt(2k\pi)$ -> goes to infinity
$cost_k^2$=-1=>$t_k^2$=$k\pi$⟹$t_k$=$\sqrt(k\pi)$ goes to 0 as k goes to infinity
- show difference of $\|x_k-t_k|$->0 but $|f(x_k)-f(t_k)|$=2≠0.
$\sqrt(2k\pi)$–$\sqrt(k\pi)$->0 when k->infinity.
Then we are told to conjugate (a+b)(a-b)=$a^2-b^2$.
So I got $\frac{k\pi}{\sqrt(2k\pi)+\sqrt(k\pi)}$
This is where I am confused on how to relate this back to showing it is not uniformly continuous.
Best Answer
Think about the definition of uniform continuity:
When you negate such a statement, the quantifiers flip. So:
Now look at a graph of the function:
You see that the function oscillates between $1$ and $-1$, but at an increasing frequency the further away from zero you go. That's because $f'(x) = 2x \sin(x^2)$.
Thinking about it another way, the horizontal distance between each consecutive peak and valley shrinks the larger $x$ gets, and in fact tends to $0$ as $x \to \infty$. So we can find points $x$ and $y$ arbitrarily close together such that $f(x) = 1$ and $f(y) = -1$. That is what you're trying to find with all your $x_k$'s and $t_k$'s.