[Math] Fermat’s Last Theorem and Faltings’ Theorem.

number theory

I apologise for all these questions of Fermat's Last Theorem, but I am fascinated by the topic, even if I cannot understand all of it.

I must admit that I am not well versed in the language of modular forms or elliptic equations, but they seem quite complicated to me.

However, while reading Simon Singh's book "Fermat's Last Theorem", I found one particular bit very interesting.

I immediately thought that there was an easier way to prove Fermat's Last Theorem. It was to do with Falting's Theorem and the geometrical representations of equations like $x^n + y^n = 1$.

I quote: "Faltings was able to prove that, because these shapes always have more than one hole, the associated Fermat equation could only have a finite number of whole number solutions."

Surely, now all that is needed is to prove that a Fermat equation has infinite solutions.

Suppose we take the original equation:
$$A^3 + B^3 = C^3$$
Surely we can find infinite solutions to this by doubling $A, B, C$
$$(2A)^3 + (2B)^3 = (2C)^3$$
$$8A^3 + 8B^3 = 8C^3$$
$$A^3 + B^3 = C^3$$
Surely this means there are infinitely many solutions to these equations.
But now we have a contradiction, so therefore our original assumption, that $A^3 + B^3 = C^3$ has solutions, is false.

Who can point out my error as this seems a very simple step to take from Falting's to Fermat's. And surely that step wouldn't have taken years to take, especially for Andrew Wiles.

Best Answer

This is a nice idea but the quote is about the equation $$x^n+y^n=\color{red}1$$So, assume that $$A^3+B^3=C^3$$We get $$\left(\frac AC\right)^3+\left(\frac BC\right)^3=1$$

And also indeed $$(2A)^3+(2B)^3=(2C)^3$$ And we again get$$\left(\frac {2A}{2C}\right)^3+\left(\frac {2B}{2C}\right)^3=\left(\frac AC\right)^3+\left(\frac BC\right)^3=1$$ Which is the same solution as before.