Let $E_n(x):=\sum_{k=0}^n\,\frac{x^k}{k!}$ for $n=0,1,2,\ldots$. We shall prove that $E_n(x)$ has no real roots if $n$ is even, and $E_n(x)$ has exactly one real root, which is simple, if $n$ is odd.
Suppose that $n$ is even. Clearly, $E_n(x)$ has no roots in $\mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$. By Taylor's Theorem, we have $\exp(x)=E_n(x)+R_n(x)$, where the remainder term is given by
$$R_n(x)=\int_0^x\,\frac{\exp^{(n+1)}(t)}{n!}\,(x-t)^n\,\text{d}t=\int_0^x\,\frac{\exp(t)}{n!}\,(x-t)^n\,\text{d}t\,.$$
If $x<0$, then
$$R_n(x)=-\int_0^{|x|}\,\frac{\exp(-t)}{n!}\,|x+t|^n\,\text{d}t<0\,.$$
That is,
$$E_n(x)=\exp(x)-R_n(x)>\exp(x)>0$$
for all $x<0$. That is, $E_n(x)$ has no negative roots either; i.e., $E_n(x)$ has no real roots.
If $n$ is odd, then $E'_n(x)=E_{n-1}(x)$ has no real roots. Thus, $E_n(x)$ can have at most one real root, due to Rolle's Theorem. Clearly, $E_n(x)$ has a real root, being a polynomial in $\mathbb{R}[x]$ of an odd degree. Consequently, $E_n(x)$ has exactly one real root, which is simple.
If you take the polynomial modulo 2 you get $x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1$. It doesn't have a root, so if it is decomposable, it is a product of two irreducible polynomials of degree 2. The only polynomial of degree 2 which doesn't have a root is $x^2+x+1$ and its square is $x^4+x^2+1$. It follows that your polynomial is irreducible modulo $2$ and therefore irreducible in over $\mathbb{Z}$.
Best Answer
A way to do it is to write $(x+2)(x+3) = x^2 + 6x + 6 - x$, $(x+1)(x+6) = x^2 + 6x + 6 + x$, so
$$ (x+2)(x+3)(x+1)(x+6) = (x^2 + 6x + 6)^2 -x^2 $$ which gives that $$ (x+2)(x+3)(x+1)(x+6) - 3x^2 = (x^2 + 6x + 6)^2 -4x^2 = (x^2+ 4x + 6)(x^2 +8x + 6). $$