[Math] $f$ is integrable but has no indefinite integral

analysiscalculusintegrationreal-analysis

Let $$f(x)=\cases{0,& $x\ne0$\cr 1, &$x=0.$}$$

Then $f$ is clearly integrable, yet has no antiderivative, on any interval containing $0,$ since any such antiderivative would have a constant value on each side of $0$ and have slope $1$ at $0$—an impossibility.

So does this mean that $f$ has no indefinite integral?

EDIT

My understanding is that the indefinite integral of $f$ is the family of all the antiderivatives of $f,$ and conceptually requires some antiderivative to be defined on the entire domain. Is this correct?

Best Answer

This is a matter of definitions. Usually an antiderivative of a function $f$ is any function whose derivative is $f$. The indefinite integral usually denotes the set of all antiderivatives.

Since every derivative satisfies the intermediate values property, your function $f$ cannot be a derivative and hence has no indefinite integral.

A different thing is the integral function which might be defined as a function $F$ such that $$ \int_a^b f(x) dx = F(b)-F(a). $$ This exists for all integrable functions.

The fundamental theorem of Calculus states that the two concepts agree for continuous functions.