[Math] Every linearly independent set can be extended to a basis

functional-analysislinear algebra

Let $E$ be linear space (infinite dimensional in general). We know by Zorn's lemma that there exists a basis. Now let $S \subset E$ be any linear independent subset. How to prove that it is contained in some basis of $E$?

And moreover if $F \subset E$ is subspace then there are linear functional such that $f(F) = 0$ and linear complement to $F$ in $E$.

I know how it can be done for finite dimensional spaces but I am always confused when infinite dimension and Zorn's lemma are involved.

Best Answer

Use again Zorn's Lemma. Define:

$$C:=\left\{\,T\supset S\,/\,\,T\;\text{is linearly independent}\,\right\}$$

Observe that $\;S\in C\implies C\neq\emptyset\;$ and we can partial order $\;C\;$ by set inclusion and etc. (check this!), so by Zorn's Lemma we're done if we succeed in proving a maximal element $\;M\;$ in $\;C\;$ is a basis of $\;E\;$ , but this is easy as otherwise there'd be an element $\;x\in E\,,\,\,x\notin\text{ Span}\,M\;$, but then $\;M\cup\{x\}\;$ is lin. ind. and contains $\;S\;$ so contradiction...(fill in details here)