[Math] elementary question about tensor product of modules

commutative-algebramodules

I'm a bit embarrassed to ask this, but I've gotten myself confused over what I think is a simple issue. Let $A$ be a local ring, $k$ its residue field, and $M,N$ finitely generated $A$-modules. An exercise in Atiyah and Macdonald asserts that if $M \otimes_A N = 0$, then either $M = 0$ or $N = 0$. They give a hint in which they use the notation $M_k = M \otimes_A k$: it says $M \otimes_A N = 0$ implies $(M \otimes_A N)_k = 0$ implies $M_k \otimes_k N_k = 0$. I don't fully understand what happened in the second step.

This motivates the following more general question: if $A$ is any commutative ring and $B$ a commutative $A$-algebra, and $M,N$ are $B$-modules, can we identify $M \otimes_A N \cong M \otimes_B N$ as, say, $A$-modules? I think this is either very obvious or very naive.

Best Answer

No, we may not in general make the identification evoked in your more general question.
For example take $A=\mathbb R , B=\mathbb C , M=N =\mathbb C$. Then $\mathbb C \otimes_{\mathbb C} \mathbb C =\mathbb C$ whereas $\mathbb C \otimes_{\mathbb R} \mathbb C=\mathbb C \times \mathbb C $.

But sometimes we may...

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