It is known that the number of digits of a natural number $n > 0$, which represent by $d(n)$ is given by:
$d(n)= 1 + \lfloor\log n\rfloor\qquad (\text{I})$
($\log$ indicates $\log$ base $10$)
Well .. the classical approach to the Stirling factorial natural number $n > 1$ is given by:
$$n! \approx f(n) = [(2n\pi) ^{1/2}] [(n / e) ^ n]$$
The number of digits $n!$, according to equality (I), is:
$d(n!) = 1 + \lfloor\log n!\rfloor$
It seems to me that for all natural $n> 1$, $\log n!$ and $\log [f (n)]$ have the same floor:
$$\lfloor\log(n!)\rfloor = \lfloor\log(f(n))\rfloor$$
Here's my big question!
Therefore, we could write:
$$d (n!) = 1 + \lfloor\log(f(n))\rfloor$$
Hope someone has some little time for the theme.
Best Answer
6561101970383 is a counterexample, and the first such if I computed correctly. See my answer in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/19170 for more information.