[Math] Does every prime ideal in a ring arise as kernel of a homomorphism into $\mathbb{Z}$

abstract-algebraidealsring-theory

Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Clearly the kernel of $h$ is a prime ideal whenever $h : R \rightarrow
\mathbb{Z}$ is a ring homomorphism. But is the converse true: does every prime ideal arise
as kernel of a homomorphism into $\mathbb{Z}$?

Best Answer

Let $R$ be a field of uncountable cardinality. For a minimal counterexample, let $R = \mathbb{F}_2$.

The correct salvage is that every prime ideal arises as the kernel of a homomorphism into some integral domain (in fact, into some field). It shouldn't be possible to say anything stronger than this.