Consider
$$T \vee ( \neg x \wedge y ) \vee ( x \wedge y )\tag{1}$$
In class we went over examples of how many things can be both DNF and CNF… e.g.,
- $(\neg z) \vee y$
can be thought of as both
- $(\neg z) \vee y\qquad\quad\,$ DNF
- $((\neg z) \vee y) \wedge T\quad$ CNF
Can someone explain why example (1) cannot work like that, i.e., as in being one large conjunction of a disjunction as in (2)?
$$T \wedge (T \vee ( \neg x \wedge y ) \vee ( x \wedge y ))\tag{2}$$
Is it due to having more than one disjunction inside?
Best Answer
For DNF :
Tus, the formula :
is in DNF beacuse is the disjunction of two "degenerate" conjunctions : $\lnot z$ and $y$.
For CNF, we have that :
Thus :
is in CNF, because we have the disjunction of the two literals : $\lnot z$ and $y$ that makes the clause : $(\lnot z) \lor y$; then a second clause : $T$ (a "degenerate" disjunction) and the two disjunctions are conjoined into : $((\lnot z) \lor y) \land T$.
Regarding the formula :
we have three conjunctions : $(\lnot x \land y )$ and $( x \land y )$ and the "degenerate" : $T$, and they are disjoined into :
this formula is in DNF; but adding the part : $T \land \ldots$, the resulting formula is nor more a DNF.
With the formula :
we can apply Distributivity to its subformula:
$$[(\lnot x \land y ) \lor ( x \land y )] \equiv [y \land (x \lor \lnot x)] \equiv (y \land T) \equiv y$$
to get the equivalent :
which is both a CNF and a DNF equivalent to the original formula.