[Math] Diameter of Nested Compact Sets

real-analysis

This is a question about the proof of Theorem 3.10(b) in baby Rudin:

For any $E \subset X$ note $\mathrm{diam} \; E = \sup \big\{ d(p, q) : p, q \in E \big\}$ and let $\{K_n\}$ be a collection of nonempty compact sets in a metric space $X$ such that for any $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $K_n \supset K_{n+1}$.

If $\lim_{n \to \infty} \mathrm{diam} \; K_n = 0$, then $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty K_n$ contains exactly one element.

If $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty K_n$ were to contain more than one element, then we would have: $$\mathrm{diam} \; K_n \geq \mathrm{diam} \;\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty K_n > 0$$ for every $n \in \mathbb{N}$. In Rudin's proof, he says that this contradicts the fact that $\mathrm{diam} \; K_n \to 0$.

But how is this a contradiction? For example, if $\mathrm{diam} \; K_n = \frac{1}{n}$ for every $n \in \mathbb{N}$, we would have a sequence which converges to zero, but each of its elements is $> 0$.

Best Answer

I don't have "Baby Rudin" handy at the moment, but if $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty K_n$ were to contains two distinct points, $x, y$, then $\mathrm{diam} ( \bigcap_{n=1}^\infty K_n ) \geq d (x,y) > 0$. As $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty K_n \subseteq K_n$ for all $n$, it would follow that $\mathrm{diam} (K_n) \geq d(x,y)$ for all $n$, contradicting that $\mathrm{diam} (K_n) \rightarrow 0$.