I'll put the problem and then I'll explain my problem.
Problem: Let ${A_n}$ be events such as
$\operatorname{Cov}(I_{A_i},I_{A_j})=E[I_{A_i}I_{A_j}]-E[I_{A_i}]E[I_{A_j}]\leq 0,\ \forall i\neq j\tag{1}$
If $\sum P(A_i)=\infty$ then $P[\lim \sup A_n]=1$.
Answer: By (1) we have that $\operatorname{Cov}(I_{A^c_i},I_{A^c_j})\leq 0$ too.
So $P(\lim \inf A_n^c)=P(\lim \bigcap A_n^c)=\lim P(\bigcap A_n^c)\overset{Q!} {\leq} \lim \prod P(A_n^c)= \lim \prod (1-P(A_n))\leq \lim e^{-\sum P(A_n)}=0$
The detail is that in the inequality marked with a "Q!" I used that $P(\bigcap A_n)\leq \prod P(A_n)$. It is intuitive but i couldn't prove through the problem statement. But it is interesting result. We could use B-C lemma even for correlated events, since they are negatively correlated. What do you guys think about it?
Best Answer
I think Fristedt & Gray's book on probability proves a version of Borel--Cantelli that assumes only nonpositive correlation rather than independence. In particular, that means pairwise independence is enough.
Later edit: Here's what I find in A Modern Approach to Probability Theory by Bert Fristedt and Lawrence Gray, page 79: