[Math] Definition of limit: Heine implies Cauchy

convergence-divergencegeneral-topologylimitsreal-analysissequences-and-series

Let $E$ be a metric space, $f: E \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ and $\bar{x} \in \text{cl}(E)$. We say that $\lim_{x \rightarrow \bar{x}} f(x) = L$ if:

Heine's definition: for any sequence $x_n \rightarrow \bar{x}$ and for any $\epsilon >0$ there exists $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $|f(x_n)-L|<\epsilon$ for any $n>N$;

Cauchy's definition: for any $\epsilon >0$ there exists $\delta >0$ such that $|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$ whenever $\text{d}(x,\bar{x})<\delta$.

How can I prove that Heine's definition implies Cauchy's?

Best Answer

It is easy to prove that (not Cauchy) implies (not Heine): Assume the Cauchy criterion is not satisfied at $x$. Then there is $\epsilon>0$ such that for all $\delta=1/n$, $n\in \mathbb N$, there is $x_n$ with $d(x,x_n)<\delta$ and $|f(x_n)-L|>\epsilon$. Now Heine's criterion is not fulfilled, since $x_n\to x$ but $f(x_n)$ does not converge to $L$.

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