[Math] Definite integral of a periodic funtion, offset by the period, equals the original definite integral

calculusdefinite integralsintegrationperiodic functions

Suppose $f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ is Riemann integrable on every finite interval and periodic with period $T>0$. Then for every interval $[a,b]$:
$$ \int_a^b f = \int_c^d f,$$ where $c = a+T$ and $d = b+T$.

I don't understand why, if so, this is true.

How van I explain it? I could do it if I knew that the antiderivative is periodic, but do we even know that there is an antiderivative?

Best Answer

By the change variable $x=u-T$ so $du=dx$ we have $$\int_a^b f(x)dx=\int_{a+T}^{b+T}f(u-T)du=\int_c^df(u)du$$

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