Calculus – Conjecture ${\large\int}_0^\infty\left[\frac1{x^4}-\frac1{2x^3}+\frac1{12\,x^2}-\frac1{\left(e^x-1\right)x^3}\right]dx=\frac{\zeta(3)}{8\pi^2}$

calculusclosed-formdefinite integralsexperimental-mathematicsintegration

I encountered the following integral and numerical approximations tentatively suggest that it might have a simple closed form:

$${\large\int}_0^\infty\left[\frac1{x^4}-\frac1{2x^3}+\frac1{12\,x^2}-\frac1{\left(e^x-1\right)x^3}\right]dx\stackrel{\color{gray}?}=\frac{\zeta(3)}{8\pi^2}\tag{$\diamond$}$$
(Update: I fixed a typo: replaced $4\pi^2$ with $8\pi^2$ in the denominator)

I have only about $800$ decimal digits that agree with the conjectured value, calculated using Mathematica. Unfortunately, its numerical algorithms become unstable when I try to increase precision. Maple refuses to numerically evaluate this integral altogether.

Obviously, the first three terms of the integrand have elementary antiderivatives, but I was not able to find a closed-form antiderivative (either elementary or using known special functions) for the last one.

I'm asking for your help in proving (or disproving) the $(\diamond)$.

Best Answer

What about the Laplace transform? By using it, we have that our integral equals:

$$ I= \frac{1}{36}\int_{0}^{+\infty}\left(1-3 s+6 s^2-6 s^3 \psi'(1+s)\right)\,ds$$ and in this form Mathematica is perfectly able to state that $I=\frac{\zeta(3)}{\color{red}{8}\pi^2}$.

I just used: $$\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{x^4}\right)=\frac{s^3}{6},\qquad \mathcal{L}\left(1-\frac{x}{2}+\frac{x^2}{12}-\frac{x}{e^x-1}\right)=\frac{1-3 s+6 s^2}{6 s^3}-\psi'(1+s) $$ together with: $$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}f(x)g(x)\,dx = \int_{0}^{+\infty}(\mathcal{L} f)(s)(\mathcal{L}^{-1}g)(s)\,ds.$$

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