[Math] Cannot Make Sense of Chess Tournament Solution

probability

I got the following question and corresponding solution, but cannot make sense of the solution, could any expert give me some advice?

A chess tournament has $2^n$ players with skills $1>2>…>2^n$. It is organized as the knockout tournament, so that after each round, only the winner proceeds to the next round. Except for the final, opponents in each round are drawn at random. Let's also assume that when two players meet in the game, the player with better skills always wins. What is the probability that players one and two will meet in the final?

Solution:
Player one always wins. So he will be in the final. It is obvious that $2^n$ players are separated to two $2^{n-1}$ player subgroups. And each group will have one player reaching the final. For player two to reach the final, he must be in a different subgroup from player one, since any of the remaining players in $2,3,…,2^{n-1}$ are likely to be one of the $(2^{n-1}-1)$ players in the same subgroup as player one, or one of the $2^{n-1}$ players in the subgroup different from player one, the probability that player two is in a different subgroup from player one and that player one and player two will meet in the final is simply $2^{n-1}/(2^n-1)$. I'm wondering if any expert can explain why $2^{n-1}/(2^n-1)$ holds? Really appreciate it!

Best Answer

One way to view this is as a branching tournament bracket (or a complete binary tree if you prefer) and to place the competitors randomly at each starting point, or each leaf node. Then, player 2 must be placed on the opposite side of the bracket as player 1 in order to meet in the final. We decide where player 1 gets put first. Then, that leaves $2^n -1$ places for player 2 to go. But, he must go in the other half to make it to the final, and that means $\frac{1}{2}(2^n) = 2^{n-1}$ possible places, giving us the solution $\frac{2^{n-1}}{2^n-1}$. Intuitively, for a large bracket, we would expect him to reach the final about half the time, and indeed the value is approximately $1/2$ for large $n$. This is pretty much the same as the solution above but worded a bit differently.