[Math] Can open sets be an open cover, for itself

definitiongeneral-topologyreal-analysis

I have Baby Rudin's book with me and it clearly defines a cover to be open. In a followup, it defines a set $K$ to be compact if every open cover of $K$ contains a finite subcover.

And the rest I quote

More explicitly, the requirement is that if $\{ G_{\alpha}\}$ is an open cover of $K$, then there are finitely many indices $\alpha_1, \dots, \alpha_n$ such that $$K \subset G_{\alpha_1} \cup \dots\cup G_{\alpha_n}$$

From the notation, it would seem to suggest that we can't have $K$ to be an improper subset of the covers. Now in another book (which I referenced another user whom referenced the book) by Richardson (I don't know the full name sorry), it's definition of a cover allows a set to cover itself.

So what subtlety could I have possibly overlooked? Sorry if this mysterious reference is vague, but I couldn't get enough information on the book.

Best Answer

$K$ can be an improper subset in the definition. Some authors use $\subseteq$ and $\subset$ for subset and proper subset respectively, while others use $\subset$ and $\subsetneq$ respectively. Rudin uses the latter.

An open set obviously forms an open cover of itself, but a set is compact if every open cover has a finite subcover. You need to understand the notation for subset and definition of compact to avoid confusion.

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