[Math] bounded $\implies$ integrable

bounded-variationreal-analysisriemann-integration

I have to prove the following:

"If $f$ is of bounded variation on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b].$"

And I've already proven that:

"If $f$ is of bounded variation on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is bounded on $[a,b].$"

My question-

Can I merge the two statements and say, w.l.o.g: "If $f$ is bounded on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b].$"

That way I could just use the following Theorem to prove the first statement:

"If $f$ is bounded on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ $\iff$ $\forall\varepsilon>0,$ there exists a partition $P$ of $[a,b]$ such that:
$$S(P) -s(P) < \varepsilon$$

where $S(P)$ is the upper sum of partition $P$, and $s(P)$ is the lower sum.

UPDATE!
Here's the Theorem:

enter image description here

Best Answer

By "integrable" you appear to mean "Riemann-integrable", i.e. you're using partitions of an interval and upper and lower sums. In that sense of integrability, not all bounded functions are integrable. For example, let $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if $x$ is rational,} \\ 0 & \text{otherwise.} \end{cases} $$ This is bounded and not Riemann-integrable. And it does not have bounded variation on any interval. This shows that having bounded variation is a far stronger condition than merely being bounded. And that merely being bounded is nowhere near enough for your purpose.