[Math] Boundary and closure of a measure zero set is not measure zero

measure-theory

In $\mathbb{R}^n$, let $E \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ such that $E$ has measure zero. Prove that $\bar{E}$ and $\partial E$ need not have measure zero.

I think I have a poor understanding of this. I know that $\bar{E} = int E \cup \partial E$

I am thinking that $E$ must be an open set. Because if $E$ were closed, then we get $\partial E\subset E$ and this implies $\partial E$ must have measure $0$. But now I have strayed away from the problem completely.

Should I start with a cover on $\partial E$ and deduce that the total volume over the cover is not necessarily less than $\epsilon$?

Best Answer

You're right that $E$ shouldn't be closed, but it doesn't follow that it should be open. The only open set of measure 0 is the empty set. You could take $E$ to be the set of rational numbers (in $\mathbb R$).