[Math] Baker’s map is ergodic

dynamical systemsergodic-theorymixing

Define Baker's map by
\begin{align}
f(x,y) = \begin{cases} (2x,y/2) & \mbox{ if } (x,y)\in[0,1/2]\times[0,1] \\
(2x-1,y/2+1/2) & \mbox{ if } (x,y)\in[1/2,1]\times[0,1] \\ \end{cases}
\end{align}

I already proved that $f$ is invariant with respect to the two dimensional Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]\times[0,1]$. Now I'm trying to prove that $f$ is ergodic with respect to the same measure, but I couldn't formalize any argument. I picked some squares $A,B$ on the plane and tried to calculate $\lambda(f^{-n}A\cap B)$ to prove that $f$ is in fact mixing, the draws went pretty well, but again, couldn't formalize the arguments. I tried some other equivalent forms of ergodicity, but none seems to help me. Any suggestion?

Best Answer

Isomorphisms preserve ergodicity. So if you can construct an isomorphism of the baker map to a bernoulli shift you are done. I think this is the standard way it is done in most books.

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