Measure Theory – Associativity of Product Measures

measure-theory

Suppose we have measure spaces $(X_i, M_i, \mu_i), i=1, 2,3$, that are complete and $\sigma$-finite. I learned how to form a product measure from two measure spaces, but I wasn't so sure about product of more than two. So I am learning about it at the moment. I was wondering how does one show that
$$
\mu_1 \times (\mu_2 \times \mu_3) = (\mu_1 \times \mu_2) \times \mu_3.
$$
Any hint/solution is appreciated. Thank you!

PS I was also wondering about
$$
M_1 \times (M_2 \times M_3) = (M_1 \times M_2) \times M_3.
$$

Best Answer

In the following I will prove that the product of three measures is associative. This can easily be generalized to a finite number of measures and possibly to countably many measures. As the OP indicates in his/her post scriptum, it all boils down to proving the associativity result for the $\sigma$-algebras involved.


Let $(X_i,\Sigma_i, \mu_i)$ be a measure space, $i = 1,\ 2,\ 3$. In the following I will use the (standard) notations $$\Sigma_i \times \Sigma_j = \{A \times B : A \in \Sigma_i,\ B \in \Sigma_j\}$$ $$\Sigma_i \otimes \Sigma_j = \sigma\big(\Sigma_i \times \Sigma_j\big),$$ where $\sigma(\cdot)$ indicates the $\sigma$-algebra generated by the argument, i.e. the smallest $\sigma$-algebra that contains the argument. We can finally state the result we want to prove

CLAIM: $\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2 \otimes \Sigma_3 := \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3) = \sigma((\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2) \times \Sigma_3) = \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times (\Sigma_2 \otimes \Sigma_3)).$

Synopsis of the proof: $\Sigma_i \times \Sigma_j \subset \Sigma_i \otimes \Sigma_j$ is a $\pi$-system. Define the "good set" and apply the $\pi-\Lambda$-system Theorem. Then use the minimality of $\sigma(\cdot)$ several times.

PROOF: Notice that $$(\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2) \times \Sigma_3 = \{A \times B : A \in \Sigma_1\otimes\Sigma_2,\ B \in \Sigma_3\},$$ then fix $B \in \Sigma_3$ and let $$\Lambda = \{A : A \in \Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2,\ A \times B \in \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3)\}.$$

Clearly $\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \subset \Lambda$. Let's prove that $\Lambda$ is a $\Lambda$-system.

  • $X_1 \times X_2 \times B \in \Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3$ then $X_1 \times X_2 \in \Lambda$.
  • Let $A_1,A_2 \in \Lambda$, $A_1 \subset A_2$. We need to show that $A_2 \setminus A_1 \in \Lambda$, i.e. we need to show that $(A_2 \setminus A_1) \times B \in \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3)$. This is easy since $\sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3)$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, indeed $$(A_2 \setminus A_1) \times B = (A_2 \times B) \setminus (A_1 \times B) = (A_2 \times B) \cap (A_1 \times B)^c \in \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3).$$
  • Let $\{A_i\}$ be an increasing sequence of sets in $\Lambda$. We need to show that $\cup A_i \in \Lambda$. As before, this easily follows from the fact that $\sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3)$ is a $\sigma$-algebra. Let's write out the details! $$\Big(\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}A_i\Big) \times B = \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}(A_i \times B) \in \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3).$$

We can finally apply the $\pi-\Lambda$-system Theorem to conclude that $\sigma (\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2) \subset \Lambda$ and hence $\sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2) \times B \subset \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3).$ Since this is true for every $B \in \Sigma_3$ we obviously get that $$(\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2) \times \Sigma_3 \subset \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3),$$ which in turn yields $$\sigma((\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2) \times \Sigma_3) \subset \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3).$$

Notice we can apply the same reasoning to show that $$\sigma(\Sigma_1 \times (\Sigma_2 \otimes \Sigma_3)) \subset \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3).$$

The other inclusion is a lot simpler: $\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3 \subset (\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2) \times \Sigma_3$, so that $$\sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3) \subset \sigma((\Sigma_1 \otimes \Sigma_2) \times \Sigma_3),$$ and similarly $$\sigma(\Sigma_1 \times \Sigma_2 \times \Sigma_3) \subset \sigma(\Sigma_1 \times (\Sigma_2 \otimes \Sigma_3)).$$

This proves the claim. $\blacksquare$

What happens to the measures was covered by David C. Ullrich in the comments section above.

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