[Math] Are all countable sets of real numbers Borel sets

measure-theoryreal-analysis

A set is "Borel" if it can be formed from open (or closed) sets through the operations of countable union, countable intersection or relative complement.

I have the set A = $\{1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, …\}$

This is certainly a subset of $\mathbb{R}$ and it can be formed from open sets of the form $(\frac{1}{n+1}, \frac{1}{n})$):

A = $[\bigcap^{\infty}_{n=1}(\frac{1}{n+1}, \frac{1}{n})]^c$

But this is just one particular case. I'm fairly certain it would be true in general, for all countable subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ but I'm not sure how to tackle a general proof here.

Best Answer

Any countable set is indeed Borel, since such a set is $F_\sigma$, that is, a countable union of closed sets ($X=\bigcup_{x\in X}\{x\}$ is always true, and if $X$ is countable, this is a countable union). Moreover, this is optimal: there are countable sets which are not $G_\delta$, such as the rationals $\mathbb{Q}$. (The standard tool here is the Baire category theorem.)

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