[Math] A Set is Infinite if, and only if, it is in One-to-one Correspondence with a Proper Subset of Itself

cardinalselementary-set-theoryfunctionsreal-analysis

Can someone explain what that means? How can there exist an injective function from an infinite set to a proper subset of itself. A function from a set A to a set B where B has fewer elements than A cannot be one-to-one, but this is what it says in a textbook.

Thanks in advance.

Best Answer

Instead of considering an infinite set, lets look at the finite case. If we consider the an injective function from the set to itself the image has the same number of elements as the set itself and so is a surjection, and thus a bijection. If we consider a function from the set to a proper subset it cannot be injective because of the pigeon-hole principle, there will be two elements of the set with the same image.

Now an infinite set differs in that you can find an injection into a proper subset. This matches intuition in that we would expect that if we take a finite number of things away from an infinite set there would still be infinitely many left. It's this feature that ensure it can't be a finite set and so characterizes infinite set.