[Math] A linear transformation $t$ is one-one if and only if $Ker(t) = {0}$. Why

linear algebralinear-transformations

A theorem in my textbook states:

A linear transformation $t$ is one-one if and only if $\ \mathbf{Ker}(t) =$ {$0$}.

I understand the only if bit, that is, one-one implies $\ \mathbf{Ker}(t) =$ {$0$}. $ \ $ But how does $\ \mathbf{Ker}(t) =$ {$0$} $ \ $ implies one-one? $t$ might map only the $0$ vector to the $0$ vector of its imageset, but what if it maps some other vectors to one single vector in its imageset? Then it's surely not one-one.

Best Answer

Hint: If $u$ and $v$ are vectors with the same image, what can you say about the image of $u-v$?