[Math] A function that is equal to zero at all points except one is Riemann integrable

integrationreal-analysisriemann sum

Let $c$ be inside $(a,b)$ and let $d$ be inside the set of all real numbers. Define $f:[a,b]\rightarrow R$ as
$$f(x):=\cases{d\quad& if $x$ is equal to c\cr 0& if $x$ is not equal to c\cr}\ $$ Prove that $f$ is Riemann integrable and compute $\displaystyle \int \limits_{a}^{b}f$ using the definition of the integral.


To show it is Reimann integrable I know I have to show that $\sup L(p,f) =\inf U(p,f) $ (notation-wise this mean the $\sup$ (lower Darboux Sum) = $\inf$ (upper Darboux Sum)).

I am running into confusion determining these values though. I know $L(p,f)=0$ and I have $U(p,f)=d(b-a)$. Is this correct? If so how do I determine the $\sup$ and $\inf$?

Best Answer

Hint: Details depend on precisely how the Riemann integral is presented, so this can only be a guide.

Take a partition $\Pi$ of the interval $[a,b]$. Then any Riemann sum $S$ based on $\Pi$ satisfies the inequality $$0\le S\le \epsilon d,$$ where $\epsilon$ is the mesh of the partition, that is, the maximum length of the subintervals of $\Pi$.

As $\epsilon\to 0$, $S\to 0$.

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