[Math] A compact operator in $L^2(\mathbb R)$

compact-operatorsfunctional-analysisoperator-theoryreal-analysis

Let $g \in L^{\infty}(\mathbb R)$. Consider the operator
$$
\begin{split}
T_g\colon & L^2(\mathbb R)\to L^2(\mathbb R) \\
& f \mapsto gf
\end{split}
$$
Prove that $T_g$ is compact (i.e., the image under $T_g$ of bounded closed sets is compact) if and only if $g=0$ a.e.

I do not know how to start and I'm very puzzled. I know very little about compactness in $L^p$: of course they are complete metric spaces, therefore a subspace is compact if and only if it is closed (complete) and totally bounded. A singleton is of course totally bounded and I think it is closed: therefore I can say that if $g=0$ a.e. then the image of every subspace is $\{0\}$ which is compact, so the operator is compact. What about the inverse direction? It seems hard to prove.
Would you help me, please? Thanks.

Best Answer

Suppose that $g$ is not zero a.e. and let $\epsilon>0$ be such that $E=\{x:|g(x)|>\epsilon\}$ has nonzero measure. Consider the orthogonal projection $p=T_{\chi_{E}}$. Assume that $T_{g}$ is a compact operator. The operator $T_{g}$ naturally induces a continuous linear operator of $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ into the Hilbert subspace $pL^{2}(\mathbb{R})=\{\xi \in L^{2}(\mathbb{R}):p\xi=\xi\}$, which is a Banach space. This map is onto, since $\xi \in pL^{2}(\mathbb{R})$ is mapped to by the $L^{2}$ function equal to $\xi(x)/g(x)$ on $E$ and zero elsewhere. By the open mapping theorem we have that this induced map is open, and therefore the image of the unit ball of $L^{2}(\mathbb{R})$ under this induced map contains an open ball $B$, and therefore the closure contains a closed ball $\overline{B}$. This closed ball is not compact, since $pL^2(\mathbb{R})$ is infinite-dimensional. But the image of the unit ball of $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ under a compact operator must have compact closure, and closed subsets of compact sets must be compact, so this is a contradiction.