I believe that the following limit does not exist: $$\lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{\ln(1+\sin x)}{x} $$ A graphing tool suggests that there are vertical asymptotes at "multiples" of 3$\pi$/2. But I am not sure how to show this algebraically. It doesn't qualify for L'Hospital's Rule and series didn't get me very far either. Any suggestions are welcome. EDIT: I tried a u-sub by setting $1+sinx=t$. The expression becomes $\frac{\ln t}{\arcsin(t-1)}$ where $t$ is in the interval $[0,2]$. Now for all $t$ in the interval $(0,2]$, the limit exists (including $t=1$ which is just a basic L'Hospital Rule). For $t=0+$, it is clear the limit does not exist. That would be my best answer. EDIT 2: There is a problem with my answer. $1+sinx=t$ is not equivalent to $x=arcsin(t-1)$ because the arcsine gives a restricted outcome for $x$. It is not possible for $x$ to go to infinity assuming the expression $x=arcsin(t-1)$ in the expression's denominator.
Limit problem, how to show algebraically this limit doesn’t exist
limits
Related Solutions
Let \begin{eqnarray*} g(x) &=&2(1+\cos x)\log \sec x-\sin x\{x+\log (\sec x+\tan x)\} \\ &=&\{\sin x-2(1+\cos x)\}\log \cos x-x\sin x-\sin x\log (1+\sin x) \\ &=&\{\sin x-2(1+\cos x)\}A(x)-B(x)-C(x) \end{eqnarray*} where \begin{eqnarray*} A(x) &=&\log \cos x \\ B(x) &=&x\sin x \\ C(x) &=&\sin x\log (1+\sin x) \end{eqnarray*}
Let us start with $B(x).$ \begin{eqnarray*} B(x) &=&x\sin x \\ &=&x\left[ \sin x-x+\frac{1}{6}x^{3}+x-\frac{1}{6}x^{3}\right] \\ &=&x\left[ \sin x-x+\frac{1}{6}x^{3}\right] +x^{2}-\frac{1}{6}x^{4} \\ &=&x^{6}\left( \frac{\sin x-x+\frac{1}{6}x^{3}}{x^{5}}\right) +x^{2}-\frac{1% }{6}x^{4}. \end{eqnarray*} Now let us consider in the same lines $A(x)$ \begin{eqnarray*} A(x) &=&\log \cos x \\ &=&\log (1+(\cos x-1))-(\cos x-1)+\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2} \\ &&+(\cos x-1)-\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2} \\ &=&\left( \lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{\log (1+(\cos x-1))-(\cos x-1)+\frac{1}{% 2}(\cos x-1)^{2}}{(\cos x-1)^{3}}\right) \left( \frac{\cos x-1}{x^{2}}% \right) ^{3}\left( x^{6}\right) \\ &&+(\cos x-1)-\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2} \end{eqnarray*} It remains $C(x)$ \begin{eqnarray*} C(x) &=&\sin x\log (1+\sin x) \\ &=&\sin x(\log (1+\sin x)-\sin x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{3}x+% \frac{1}{4}\sin ^{4}x \\ &&+\sin x-\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{2}x+\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{3}x-\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{4}x) \\ &=&\sin x\left( \log (1+\sin x)-\sin x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{3}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{4}x\right) \\ &&+\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{3}x+\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{4}x-\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{5}x \\ &=&(x^{6})\left( \frac{\sin x}{x}\right) ^{6}\left( \frac{\log (1+\sin x)-\sin x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{3}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{4}x}{% \sin ^{5}x}\right) \\ &&+\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{3}x+\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{4}x-\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{5}x. \end{eqnarray*} Now let us write the resulting expression of $g(x)$ as follows \begin{eqnarray*} g(x) &=&\{\sin x-2(1+\cos x)\}A(x)-B(x)-C(x) \\ &=&\{\sin x-2(1+\cos x)\}\left( \frac{\log (1+(\cos x-1))-(\cos x-1)+\frac{1% }{2}(\cos x-1)^{2}}{(\cos x-1)^{3}}\right) \left( \frac{\cos x-1}{x^{2}}% \right) ^{3}\left( x^{6}\right) \\ &&+\{\sin x-2(1+\cos x)\}\{(\cos x-1)-\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2}\} \\ &&-\left( x^{6}\right) \left( \frac{\sin x-x+\frac{1}{6}x^{3}}{x^{5}}\right) -x^{2}+\frac{1}{6}x^{4} \\ &&-(x^{6})\left( \frac{\sin x}{x}\right) ^{6}\left( \frac{\log (1+\sin x)-\sin x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{3}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{4}x}{% \sin ^{5}x}\right) \\ &&-\sin ^{2}x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{3}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{4}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{5}x. \end{eqnarray*} Divide $g(x)$ by $x^{6}$ it follows that \begin{eqnarray*} \frac{g(x)}{x^{6}} &=&\left( \sin x-2(1+\cos x)\right) \left( \frac{\log (1+(\cos x-1))-(\cos x-1)+\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2}}{(\cos x-1)^{3}}\right) \left( \frac{\cos x-1}{x^{2}}\right) ^{3} \\ &&-\left( \frac{\sin x-x+\frac{1}{6}x^{3}}{x^{5}}\right) -\left( \frac{\sin x% }{x}\right) ^{6}\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left( \frac{\log (1+\sin x)-\sin x+% \frac{1}{2}\sin ^{2}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{3}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{4}x}{\sin ^{5}x% }\right) \\ &&+((\sin x-2(1+\cos x))((\cos x-1)-\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2}) \\ &&-x^{2}+\frac{1}{6}x^{4}-\sin ^{2}x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{3}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{4}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{5}x)/x^{6}. \end{eqnarray*} Let \begin{eqnarray*} h(x) &=&\{\sin x-2(1+\cos x)\}\{(\cos x-1)-\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2}\} \\ &&-x^{2}+\frac{1}{6}x^{4}-\sin ^{2}x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{3}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{4}x+\frac{1}{4}\sin ^{5}x. \end{eqnarray*} It remains just to prove that \begin{equation*} \lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{h(x)}{x^{6}}=\frac{7}{120} \end{equation*} which is an easy computation (with or without) using LHR.
${\bf UPDATE:}$ The purpose of the first steps previously done reduced the computation of the limit of $% \frac{g(x)}{x^{6}}$ which is a complicated expression to the computation of the limit of $\frac{h(x)}{x^{6}}$ which is very simple comparatively to $% \frac{g(x)}{x^{6}}.$ Indeed, one can use the l'Hospital's rule six times very easily, but before starting to do the derivations some trigonometric simplifications are used as follows. This is
\begin{equation*} h(x)=(\sin x-2(1+\cos x))((\cos x-1)-\frac{1}{2}(\cos x-1)^{2})-x^{2}+\frac{1% }{6}x^{4}-\sin ^{2}x+\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{3}x-\frac{1}{3}\sin ^{4}x+\frac{1}{4}% \sin ^{5}x. \end{equation*}
Develop the product of the first two parenthesis and next simplifying and using power-reduction formulas (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_trigonometric_identities#Multiple-angle_formulae) \begin{equation*} \begin{array}{ccc} \sin ^{2}\theta =\frac{1-\cos 2\theta }{2} & & \cos ^{2}\theta =\frac{% 1+\cos 2\theta }{2} \\ \sin ^{3}\theta =\frac{3\sin \theta -\sin 3\theta }{4} & & \cos ^{3}\theta =% \frac{3\cos \theta +\cos 3\theta }{4} \\ \sin ^{4}\theta =\frac{3-4\cos 2\theta +\cos 4\theta }{8} & & \cos ^{4}\theta =\frac{3+4\cos 2\theta +\cos 4\theta }{8} \\ \sin ^{5}\theta =\frac{10\sin \theta -5\sin 3\theta +\sin 5\theta }{16} & & \cos ^{5}\theta =\frac{10\cos \theta +5\cos 3\theta +\cos 5\theta }{16}% \end{array} \end{equation*}
one then can re-write $h(x)\ $as follows \begin{equation*} h(x)=\frac{1}{6}x^{4}-\frac{35}{32}\sin x-x^{2}-\frac{1}{4}\cos x-\frac{5}{6}% \cos 2x+\frac{1}{4}\cos 3x- \frac{1}{24}\cos 4x+\sin 2x-\frac{21}{% 64}\sin 3x+\frac{1}{64}\sin 5x+\frac{7}{8} \end{equation*}
and therefore derivatives are simply calculated (because there is no power on the top of sin and cos), so \begin{equation*} h^{\prime }(x)=\frac{1}{4}\sin x-\frac{35}{32}\cos x-2x+\frac{2}{3}% x^{3}+2\cos 2x-\frac{63}{64}\cos 3x+ \frac{5}{64}\cos 5x+\frac{5}{% 3}\sin 2x-\frac{3}{4}\sin 3x+\frac{1}{6}\sin 4x \end{equation*} \begin{equation*} h^{\prime \prime }(x)=\frac{1}{4}\cos x+\frac{35}{32}\sin x+2x^{2}+\frac{10}{% 3}\cos 2x-\frac{9}{4}\cos 3x+ \frac{2}{3}\cos 4x-4\sin 2x+\frac{% 189}{64}\sin 3x-\frac{25}{64}\sin 5x- 2 \end{equation*} \begin{equation*} h^{\prime \prime \prime }(x)=4x+\frac{35}{32}\cos x-\frac{1}{4}\sin x-8\cos 2x+\frac{567}{64}\cos 3x- \frac{125}{64}\cos 5x-\frac{20}{3}\sin 2x+\frac{27}{4}\sin 3x-\frac{8}{3}\sin 4x \end{equation*} \begin{equation*} h^{(4)}(x)=\frac{81}{4}\cos 3x-\frac{35}{32}\sin x-\frac{40}{3}\cos 2x-\frac{% 1}{4}\cos x-\frac{32}{3} \cos 4x+16\sin 2x-\frac{1701}{64}\sin 3x+% \frac{625}{64}\sin 5x+4 \end{equation*} \begin{equation*} h^{(5)}(x)=\frac{1}{4}\sin x-\frac{35}{32}\cos x+32\cos 2x-\frac{5103}{64}% \cos 3x+ \frac{3125}{64}\cos 5x+\frac{80}{3}\sin 2x-\frac{243}{4}% \sin 3x+\frac{128}{3}\sin 4x \end{equation*} \begin{equation*} h^{(6)}(x)=\frac{1}{4}\cos x+\frac{35}{32}\sin x+\frac{160}{3}\cos 2x-\frac{% 729}{4}\cos 3x+ \frac{512}{3}\cos 4x-64\sin 2x+\frac{15\,309}{64}% \sin 3x-\frac{15\,625}{64} \sin 5x \end{equation*}
\begin{eqnarray*} \lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{h(x)}{x^{6}} &=&\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{% h^{\prime }(x)}{6x^{5}}=\cdots =\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{h^{(6)}(x)}{6!}=% \frac{h^{(6)}(0)}{6!} \\ &=&\frac{1}{6!}\left( \frac{1}{4}\cos (0)+\frac{160}{3}\cos (0)-\frac{729}{4}% \cos (0)+ \frac{512}{3}\cos (0)\right) \\ &=&\frac{1}{6!}\left( \frac{1}{4}+\frac{160}{3}-\frac{729}{4}+\frac{512}{3}% \right) \\ &=&\frac{7}{120}. \end{eqnarray*} By the way, one have to verify that at each level (except the last one) the current derivative is $zero$ for $x=0,$ in order to be able to re-use LHR.
Write the ratio as $\frac {(1+\frac 2 x )^{1/x} -1} {(1+\frac 3 x )^{1/x} -1}$. Thus you have to find $\lim_{y \to 0} \frac {(1+2y)^{y}-1} {(1+3y)^{y}-1}$. Can you take it from here?
Best Answer
As noticed the function is not defined for $x=\frac{3\pi}2+2k\pi$.
Excluding these points from the domain, the limit doesn't exist indeed by
we have that
and then
$$\dfrac{\ln(1+\sin x_n)}{x_n}=\dfrac{\ln\left(\frac1{2n^2}+o\left(\frac1{n^2}\right)\right)}{\frac{3\pi}2+\frac1n+2n\pi}\to 0$$
but by
we have that
and
$$\dfrac{\ln(1+\sin x_n)}{x_n}=\dfrac{\ln\left(\frac1{2e^{2n}}+o\left(\frac1{e^{2n}}\right)\right)}{\frac{3\pi}2+\frac1{e^n}+2n\pi}\to -\frac 1{\pi}$$
Edit
In order to make things simpler for students, we can proceed also by l'Hospital as follows.
For the first path let $t=\frac1n \to 0^+$ then
and then
$$\lim_{n\to \infty}\dfrac{\ln(1+\sin x_n)}{x_n} =\lim_{t\to 0^+}\dfrac{\ln\left(1-\cos t\right)}{\frac{3\pi}2+t+\frac{2\pi}t} \stackrel{H.R.}=\lim_{t\to 0^+}\dfrac{\sin t}{\left(1-\cos t\right)\left(1-\frac{2\pi}{t^2}\right)}=\\ =\lim_{t\to 0^+}\dfrac{t^2\sin t}{\left(1-\cos t\right)\left(t^2-2\pi\right)}=0$$
For the second path let $t=\frac1{e^n} \to 0^+$ then
and then
$$\lim_{n\to \infty}\dfrac{\ln(1+\sin x_n)}{x_n} =\lim_{t\to 0^+}\dfrac{\ln\left(1-\cos t\right)}{\frac{3\pi}2+t+2\pi\log t} \stackrel{H.R.}=\lim_{t\to 0^+}\dfrac{\sin t}{\left(1-\cos t\right)\left(1-\frac{2\pi}t\right)}=\\ =\lim_{t\to 0^+}\dfrac{\sin t}{t}\dfrac{t^2}{\left(1-\cos t\right)\left(t-2\pi\right)}=-\frac 1 \pi$$