Limit in Polar Coordinates

calculuslimitsmultivariable-calculus

EDIT: this is wrong, in fact the limit does not exist, as indicated in the answers.

Consider the following limit:
$$
\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{x^2}{x + y^2}.
$$

It is easy to show, without using polar coordinates, that such a limit is $0$. Indeed,
$$
0 \leq\Bigg|\frac{x^2}{x + y^2}\Bigg| = \Bigg|\frac{x}{x + y^2}\Bigg||x| \leq |x|,
$$

and the argument follows by the squeeze theorem. Now assume that we do not know this fact and we start using polar coordinates instead. Write
$$
x = r\cos(\theta), y = r \sin(\theta).
$$

Then,
$$
\frac{x^2}{x + y^2} = \frac{\cos^2(\theta)}{\frac{\cos(\theta)}{r} + \sin^{2}(\theta)}.
$$

It is obvious that, for a fixed $\theta$, the above expression goes to zero as $r \to 0$, but of course, this is not enough to show what we want. What we have to see is that there exists a one-variable function $h = h(r)$, depending only on $r$, such that
$$
0 \leq \Bigg|\frac{\cos^2(\theta)}{\frac{\cos(\theta)}{r} + \sin^{2}(\theta)}\Bigg| \leq h(r)
$$

for every $\theta$ and $r$, and with $\lim_{r \to 0}h(r) = 0$.

The question is: how do we find the function $h = h(r)$ in our case?

EDIT: this is wrong, in fact the limit does not exist, as indicated in the answers.

Best Answer

The limit is NOT zero. It does not exist!

If $x=y^2$, as $y\to 0$, then $x\to 0$ and $$\frac{x^2}{x + y^2} =\frac{y^4}{y^2 + y^2}=y^2\to 0.$$ On the other hand, along the curve $x=-y^2+y^4$, as $y\to 0$, then $x\to 0$ and $$\frac{x^2}{x + y^2} =\frac{(-y^2+y^4)^2}{-y^2+y^4 + y^2}=\frac{y^4-2y^6+y^8}{y^4}= 1-2y^2+y^4\to 1.$$ Indeed, in your first approach, $\left|\frac{x}{x + y^2}\right|$ is NOT bounded in a neighbourhood of the origin.