I'm trying to calculate $\lim_{x \to 0}\left(\frac{\sin^2(x)}{1-\cos(x)}\right)$ without L'Hopital's rule.
The trigonometrical identity $\sin^2(x) = \frac{1-\cos(2x)}{2}$ doesn't seem to lead anywhere. I also attempted to calculate using $\cos^2(x) + \sin^2(x) = 1$ without success.
Any ideas?
Best Answer
Consider the following:
$$\sin^2(x) = 1-\cos^2(x) = (1-\cos(x))(1+\cos(x))$$
You can do the cancellation and BABAM! Evaluating the limit after that is easy :D