Let $m, x$ be positive integers such that $GCD(m, x) = 1$. Then $x$ has a multiplicative inverse modulo $m$, and it is unique (modulo $m$).

elementary-number-theorymodular arithmetic

The theorem quoted in the title, was actually stated differently in the problem I was reading. The original statement was as follows:

Let $m$ be a positive integer and let $S$ denote the set of positive integers less than $m$ that are relatively prime to $m$. Prove that for each $x$ in $S$, there exists a unique $y$ in $S$ such that $xy$ is congruent to $1$ modulo $m$.

The proof that I have encountered, addresses the statement of the theorem given in the title:

Consider the sequence of $m$ numbers $0, x, 2x, \ldots, (m−1)x$. We claim that these are all distinct modulo $m$. Since there are only $m$ distinct values modulo $m$, it must then be the case that $ax = 1 \mod m$ for
exactly one $a$ (modulo m). This $a$ is the unique multiplicative inverse.
To verify the above claim, suppose that $ax = bx \mod m$ for two distinct values $a,b$ in the range $0 \le a,b \le m−1$. Then we would have $(a−b)x = 0 \mod m$, or equivalently, $(a−b)x = km$ for some integer $k$ (possibly zero or negative). But since $x$ and $m$ are relatively prime, it follows that $a−b$ must be an integer multiple of $m$. This is not possible since $a,b$ are distinct non-negative integers less than $m$.

As far as I can understand, this only proves that $x$ always has a unique multiplicative inverse, but not that this inverse belongs to the set $S$ (as defined by the original statement of the theorem).

I understand that this proof is correct, and I can see why it would work when $m$ is prime (as the set $S$ would then contain all positive integers less than $m$), however when $m$ is any positive integer the set $S$ would not necessarily contain $m-1$ elements.

Therefore, it seems as if the proof does not exclude the possibility that the multiplicative inverse is not itself relatively prime to $m$.

Best Answer

It sounds like you accept that for any $x\in S$ s that there exist a $y\in \{1,\cdots, m-1\}$ such that $xy\equiv 1 \pmod m$ but you are not convinced that $y\in S$

what is then $\gcd(y,m)$?

We know that $xy - pm= 1$ (for some integer $p$) therefore $\gcd(y,m) = 1$

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