I am supposed to find the Laurent series for $f(z) = \frac{1}{1 – z}$ and $ f(z) = \frac{1}{(1 – z)^2}$ around $|z| > 1$. I think I can find the first one, but the second one to me seems a little bit confusing.
For the first, one since we want a Laurent series that converges for $|z| > 1$, i.e. $|1/z| < 1$, then we can write the given function as
\begin{equation*}
f(z) = -\dfrac{1}{z}\dfrac{1}{1 – \frac{1}{z}} = -\dfrac{1}{z} \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{z}\right)^n = -\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{z}\right)^{n + 1}
\end{equation*}
which is the desired series that will converge for $|z| > 1$.
Now for the second one, I know that I can write the function as
\begin{equation*}
f(z) = \dfrac{1}{z^2}\dfrac{1}{\left(1 – \frac{1}{z}\right)^2}
\end{equation*}
But I am not sure how I would be able to expand $\frac{1}{\left(1 – \frac{1}{z}\right)^2}$ as a series. I am not sure if it would follow from the first expansion, or not.
Some help would be appreciated.
Best Answer
Besides the nice answer from @eyeballfrog you can also directly obtain the Laurent series by applying a binomial series expansion admissible for $\left|\frac{1}{z}\right|<1$.
Comment:
In (1) we use the binomial identity $\binom{-p}{q}=\binom{p+q-1}{q}(-1)^q$.
In (2) we shift the index by $2$ to get an expansion in terms of $\frac{1}{z^n}$.