Jensen inequality proof Rudin RCA

measure-theoryreal-analysis

My question is about the very first part of the proof of this theorem by Rudin in his RCA book (I am not going to write the whole proof for the full proof please see here:Help understanding proof on Jensen's Inequality):

3.3 Theorem (Jensen's Inequality) Let $μ$ be a positive measure on a σ-algebra $M$ in a set $Ω$, so that $μ(Ω)=1$. If $f$ is a real function in $L^1(μ)$, if $a<f(x)<b$ for all $x∈Ω$, and if $φ$ is convex on $(a,b)$, then
$$φ(∫_Ωfdμ)≤∫_Ω(φ∘f)dμ$$
PROOF Put $t=∫_Ω fdμ$. Then $a<t<b$.

Why is $t$ in between $a$ and $b$ and not necessarily equal to $b$?

Best Answer

(OP likely understands it by now, but here are some more details to copper.hat's comment for future readers.)

By Theorem 1.39, $\int_{\Omega} f \, d\mu = 0$ implies that $f = 0$ a.e.

If $\int_{\Omega} f \, d\mu = a$, then $$ \int_{\Omega} (f - a) \, d\mu = \int_{\Omega} f \, d\mu - \int_{\Omega} a \, d\mu = \int_{\Omega} f \, d\mu - a \mu(\Omega) = \int_{\Omega} f \, d\mu - a = 0, $$ so that we may conclude that $f - a = 0$ a.e. or $f = a$ a.e., which is in contradiction with the fact that the range of $f$ is in $(a,b)$.

The proof for $b$ is similar.