Is this infinite product formula for Apéry’s constant correct $\zeta(3)=\frac{\pi^3}{28}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \ln(1+1/n)(n+1/2)$

definite integralsinfinite-productriemann-zeta

Hello fellow integral enthusiasts,

today, by accident, I derived the following formula for Apéry's constant (which is $\zeta(3)$ where $\zeta$ is the Riemann zeta function)
$$\zeta(3)=\frac{\pi^3}{28}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \ln(1+1/n)(n+1/2)$$

Numerically, I obtain $\zeta(3)=1.1998$ using a million product terms, although the correct result should be $\zeta(3)=1.2021$. I am not 100% sure if the deviation is just due to numerical precision issues.

My derivation starts with the integral
$$\int_0^\pi dt \frac{t(\pi-t)}{\sin(t)}$$
I use the substitution $t=\pi/2+x$, then symmetry of the integrand, and then the infinite product formula for the cosine. Then I interchange product and integral (which I hope is okay). On the other hand, a solution to the above integral which contains $\zeta(3)$ is given here (after substitution $\pi x=t$). Equating both evaluations of the integral yields the product formula for $\zeta(3)$.

Questions:

a) Is the formula correct?

b) Do you have another derivation for it?

Best Answer

I think your problem lies in the interchanging of the product and the integral. Even if it wasn't an infinite product, the interchanging would still be invalid. Here's a simple example:

$$\int_0^1x\sin x\ dx\approx 0.30116867894$$ while $$\left(\int_0^1xdx\right)\left(\int_0^1 \sin x\ dx\right)\approx 0.229848847066,$$ so those are obviously not the same.

Although $$\int \sum_{i}f_i(x)\ dx=\sum_{i}\int f_i(x)dx$$ holds under special circumstances, very rarely (if ever) does $$\int\prod_{i}f_i(x)\ dx=\prod_i \int f_i(x)dx$$ hold.