Is the extension $\text{Totally Ramified}$

algebraic-number-theorylocal-fieldnumber theory

$(1)$ Let $K/F$ be a finite extension of the local field $F$ of characteristic $0$ obtained by adjoining by the roots of a irreducible monic polynomial to $F$. Is the extension $\text{Totally Ramified}$ ?

I know that adjoining the roots of an Eisenstein polynomial produces $\text{Totally ramified}$ extension.

$(2)$ What is the easiest way to check whether the extension is Totally ramified or not ?

Please help

Best Answer

Let $K$ be a local field with residue field $k$ and uniformiser $\pi$. Let $F$ be a finite extension with residue field $k_F$ and uniformiser $\pi_F$. An extension $F/K$ can take one of two flavours:

  • If $\pi\mathcal O_F = (\pi_F)^e$, we say the extension is ramified. It is totally ramified if $e = [F:K]$.

  • If $\pi\mathcal O_F = (\pi_F)$ is still prime, we say the extension is unramified. In this case, we can choose $\pi_F = \pi$.

In the ramified case, the extension is obtained by adding a new uniformiser of smaller valuation: if we normalise the valuation on $F$ so that $v(\pi_F) = 1$, then $v(\pi) = e$. In the totally ramified case, the residue field $k_F = k$.

In the unramified case, the uniformiser does not change. Instead, the extension is happening on the residue field: $[k_F: k] = [F:K]$.

Now, suppose that $F = K(\alpha)$ where $\alpha$ is a root of the irreducible polynomial $f$. We can always assume that $f$ is monic with integer coefficients. In this case, $\alpha$ is an algebraic integer. Let $\overline \alpha$ be its image in $k_F$. Then $\overline \alpha$ is a root of $f\pmod \pi$. In particular, if $F/K$ is totally ramified, then $k(\overline \alpha) = k$. It follows that $f\pmod \pi$ is completely reducible.

The converse is false in general, as $f$ could be a polynomial like $X^2 + p^2$, and $F(\sqrt{-p^2}) = F(\sqrt{-1})$ is unramified if the residue characteristic is not $2$. The problem here is that the map $\mathcal O_K[\sqrt{-p^2}]\to k_F$ is not surjective: its image is exactly $k$! However, if $\mathcal O_F = \mathcal O_K[\alpha]$, then the map $\mathcal O_K[\alpha]\to k_F$ is surjective. In particular, $k_F = k(\overline \alpha)$. So if $f\pmod \pi$ is completely reducible, then $k_F = k$, so $F$ is totally ramified.

Related Question