Is the boundary $\partial A$ of $A \subset X$ contained into $\overline{A}$

general-topology

Let X be a topological space and let $A \subset X$.
Let $\overline{A}$ be the closure of A and let $\partial A = \{p \in X \mid \forall U \ni p, U \text{ open}:U \cap A \ne \emptyset \text{ and } U \cap A^c \ne \emptyset\}$ be the boundary of A.
I wanna prove that $\partial A \subset \overline{A}$.
I've sketched the following proof, but I don't know if it's right.

Proof: If $a \in \partial A$, then $\forall U \ni a, U \text{ open}$ we have also that $U \cap A \ne \emptyset$. The are two cases:

  1. $a \in A$ (in this case we're not sure that $(U \backslash \{a\}) \cap A \ne \emptyset$).
  2. $a \notin A$. So there exists $a' \ne a$ such that $a' \in (U \backslash \{a\}) \cap A$, then $a \in A'$, where $A'$ is the derived set of $A$

In either case, $a \in A \cup A' = \overline{A}$. Finally $\partial A \subset \overline{A}$

Best Answer

No need to consider two cases. By definition of $\partial A$, every open set to which $a$ belongs contains elemeents of $A$ and therefore $\in\overline A$.

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