Is Rudin’s proof of the inverse function theorem correct

multivariable-calculusreal-analysissolution-verification

This question concerns the proof of the inverse function theorem found in Walter Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis (3rd ed.).It defines for each $y \in \mathbb{R}^n$

$$\phi(x)=x+A^{-1}(y-f(x))$$

where $A$ is the matrix of the differential of $f$ at $a$. it shows that
$$|\phi(x) – \phi(z)| \leq \dfrac{1}{2}|x-z|$$
on some open ball centered on a such that $|f'(x)-A|< \lambda = (2|A^{-1}|)^{-1}$. Hence it states that it has at most one fixed point in $U$, so that $f(x) = y$ for at most one $x$ and $U$, so $f$ will be bijective in $U.$ For me this is not clear, as you used the contraction principle here, since $U$ is open, and it is not clear with what you have so far that $\phi(U) \subset U$?

Best Answer

$\phi$ is defined everywhere and $\phi(x) = x$ iff $f(x) = y$.

Rudin states that there is 'at most one fixed point in $U$'.

If there were two distinct fixed points $u_1,u_2 \in U$ then $\phi(u_k) = u_k$ and the contraction shows that $u_1=u_2$, a contradiction. Hence there is at most one fixed point in $U$ and hence there is at most one $x \in U$ such that $f(x) = y$.

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