Is it so that $\sigma(\cup_i \sigma(A_i)) = \sigma(\cup_i A_i)$

measure-theoryprobability theory

You are given a set $\Omega$ with some subsets $A_i \subset \Omega$, for some indices $i\in I$.

We define a generated $\sigma$-algebra $\sigma(A_i)$ to be the smallest $\sigma$-algebra that contains $A_i$.

Is it always the case that $ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) = \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $?

My intuition says yes, and it seems clear in the case where $A_i=\{a_i\},\,a_i\in\Omega$, i.e. singleton sets. Please provide a proof or a counterexample for the general case.

ADDENDUM: As was pointed out in comments and questions, I had mixed up the subsets vs sets of subsets. The question that I meant to answer is as stated below.

Consider instead collections of subsets $\mathcal A_i$. All the elements $A\in \mathcal A_i$ are subsets of $\Omega$, i.e. $A\subseteq \Omega$. The set of such collections are indexed by $i\in I$.

Is it always the case that $ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(\mathcal A_i) \right) = \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \mathcal A_i \right) $?

Best Answer

Given a set $\Omega$ with some subsets $A_i \subset \Omega$, for some indices $i\in I$.

We define a generated $\sigma$-algebra $\sigma(A_i)$ to be the smallest $\sigma$-algebra that contains $A_i$.

Is it always the case that $ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) = \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $?

For the question as stated, the answer is NO.

Counter-exemple: Let $\Omega =\{1,2\}$. Let $I =\{1,2\}$ and, for each $i\in I$, let $A_i=\{i\}$. Then, $\bigcup_{i\in I} A_i = \{1\} \cup \{2\} = \{1,2\} $. The smallest $\sigma$-algebra that contains $ \{1,2\} $ is $\{\emptyset, \{1,2\}\}$. So, we have $$ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) = \{\emptyset, \{1,2\}\} \tag{1} $$

On other hand, for each $i\in I$, $$ \sigma(A_i) = \{\emptyset, \{1\}, \{2\}, \{1,2\} \} $$ It is easy to see that $$ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in \Bbb N} \sigma(A_i) \right) = \sigma\left( \{\emptyset, \{1\}, \{2\}, \{1,2\} \} \right) = \{\emptyset, \{1\}, \{2\}, \{1,2\} \} \tag{2} $$

From $(1)$ and $(2)$, $ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) \neq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $.

Remark: If the question was

Given a set $\Omega$ with some collections $A_i$ of subsets of $\Omega$, for some indices $i\in I$.

Is it always the case that $ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) = \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $?

Then the answer would be YES.

Proof:

For all $i \in I$, $A_i \subseteq \sigma(A_i)$. So $ \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \subseteq \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i)$. So, we have $$ \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \subseteq \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \subseteq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right)$$

Since $\sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right)$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, we have $$ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right)\subseteq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) \tag{3}$$

On the other hand, for all $i \in I$, $A_i \subseteq \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \subseteq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right)$. Since $\sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right)$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, we have, for all $i \in I$, $$ \sigma(A_i) \subseteq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $$ So $$ \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \subseteq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $$ Since $\sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right)$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, we have, $$ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) \subseteq \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) \tag{4}$$

From $(3)$ and $(4)$, we have that $$ \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} \sigma(A_i) \right) = \sigma\left( \bigcup_{i\in I} A_i \right) $$

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