Is it possible to show $(\lnot p \implies p) \implies p \vdash (\lnot \lnot p \implies p)$ in constructive logic

constructive-mathematicslogicnatural-deductionproof-writingpropositional-calculus

I was given the task of showing that $(\lnot p \implies p) \vdash p$ cannot be proven in constructive logic (that is, a system with no excluded middle, double negation, or $\lnot$-elimination).

I'm trying to assume that a proof for it exists and use that to show the law of excluded middle, or double negation to arrive at a contradiction. However, I'm a bit stuck and I'm not sure if this is the right approach.

Any input appreciated!

Best Answer

$\def\fitch#1#2{~~\begin{array}{|l}#1\\\hline#2\end{array}}\fitch{(\neg p\to p)\to p}{\fitch{\neg\neg p}{\fitch{\neg p}{\bot\\p}\\\neg p\to p\\p}\\\neg\neg p\to p}$

Take $(\neg p\to p)\to p$ as a premise. Assume $\neg\neg p$ and $\neg p$. Derive $p$ by explosion of the contradiction (EFQ). Deduce $\neg p\to p$ by discharging the second assumption (ie $\to$-introduction). Derive $p$ by modus ponens with the premise (or $\to$-elimination). Deduce $\neg\neg p\to p$ by discharging the first premise ($\to$-introduction).

This demonstrates that $(\neg p\to p)\to p\vdash \neg\neg p\to p$ may be derived using only rules of inference acceptable in constructive logic .

Therefore $(\neg\ p\to p)\to p$ can not be a theorem in constructive logic since it constructively entails $\neg\neg p\to p$, which is definitely not a theorem in constructive logic,

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