Is every incomplete metric space meagre in itself

functional-analysisgeneral-topology

From the Baire category theorem, we have that every complete metric space is non-meagre. I am curious what happens when the space is not complete.

Examples or counter-examples are highly appreciated.

Definition:

A subset of a topological space is meagre if it is a countable union of nowhere dense sets,

Best Answer

In fact, being non-meagre (in itself) is a topological property, while being complete (as a metric space) is not. So you have a mismatch: $(0,1)$ is not complete (in its standard metric), but is homeomorphic to $\Bbb R$, which is. As the latter is non-meagre, so is the former. So $(0,1)$ is a trivial example of a non-complete, non-meagre metric space.

More interesting is whether there is a non-completely metrisable space $X$ that is non-meagre. the property of "being completely metrisable" is a topological property. Baire implies that all completely metrisable spaces are non-meagre. But that fails too: $((\Bbb R \times (0,+\infty)) \cup (\Bbb Q \times \{0\})$ (subspace topology from $\Bbb R^2$) is a standard example of a non-meagre metric space that is not completely metrisable.