Abstract Algebra – Is a Rational Polynomial Fully Determined by Its Values Under Integer Entries?

abstract-algebrapolynomialsring-theory

I am working with a rational polynomial $p$ in $n$ variables $x_1,…,x_n$ and know how it behaves when I plug in integers, i.e. I know that
$$ p(z_1,…,z_n) = 0$$ whenever $z_1,…,z_n\in \mathbb{Z}$. Can I conclude that $p(x_1,…,x_n) = 0$ for all $x_1,…,x_n \in \mathbb{Q}$?

Thanks in advance!

Edit:
I tried working by induction on $n$: the number of variables. When $n=1$, we have a polynomial in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ that has an infinite amount of roots, which means that it has to be zero (because the amount of roots of a non-zero polynomial is bounded by its degree.

Then for the induction hypothesis, assume that all rational polynomials in $n-1$ variables with the property that plugging in all integers always yields zero, are automatically zero for all rational entries.

Now applying the induction hypothesis to $p(x_1,…,x_{n-1},0)$ yields that $p$ only has terms containing a factor of $x_n$. We can do the same for all other variables.
This means that $p$ only has terms divisible by $x_1\cdot … \cdot x_n$.

I however now don't know how to proceed.

Best Answer

I think doing it with mathematical induction on the number of variables $n$ is a good idea. Also, rationality of the coeffecients isn't necessary, maybe there is another way that explicitely exploits that, but the statement is true assuming just real or even complex coefficients.

The inductions start with $n=1$ is easy, a non-zero polynomial of one variable of degree $m$ can have at most $m$ different roots, and since there are infinitely many integers, the polynomial must be identical to $0$.

So how to do the missing (from OP's post) induction step ($n-1 \to n$)?

We take $x_n$ and write $p$ as a polynomial in $x_n$, where the coefficients aren't constants but polynomials in the remaining $n-1$ variables:

$$p(x_1,\ldots,x_n) = p_m(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1})x_n^m + p_{m-1}(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1})x_n^{m-1}+\ldots + p_2(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1})x_n^2 + p_1(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1})x_n + p_0(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1}) = \sum_{i=0}^m p_i(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1})x_n^i,$$

where $m$ is the highest degree that $x_n$ occurs in $p$.

Note that this works even if $p$ doesn't really depend on $x_n$, then $m=0$ and the following arguments still works on $p_0$ alone.

If all of the $p_i(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1}), i=0,1,\ldots,m$ are the zero polynomial, we are done. If not, then we have a $k$ such that $p_k(x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1})$ is not identical to $0$. From the induction hypothesis we now know that there exist integers $x_1^*, \ldots, x_{n-1}^*$ such that $p_k(x_1^*,\ldots,x_{n-1}^*) \neq 0$.

That means the polynomial

$$q(x_n)=p(x_1^*,\ldots,x_{n-1}^*,x_n) = \sum_{i=0}^m p_i(x_1^*,\ldots,x_{n-1}^*)x_n^i$$

is not identical to $0$, at least the term $p_k(x_1^*,\ldots,x_{n-1}^*)x_n^k$ is not zero. But know we are back at the induction start $n=1$: We have a non-zero polynomial $q$ in one variable, so there must be some integer $x_n^*$ such that $q(x_n) \neq 0$ and that finally means $p(x_1^*,\ldots,x_{n-1}^*,x_n^*) \neq 0$.

That concludes the induction step, we have proved that any non-zero polynomial in $n$ variables cannot have roots at every point in $\mathbb Z^n$.

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