Integer based series evaluating to $\pi$

analysissequences-and-series

Evaluate $$\sum_{n\geqslant0}\frac{\binom{2n}{n}}{2^{4n}(2n+1)}-\frac{1}{\pi}\sum_{n\geqslant1}\frac{1}{n^2\binom{2n}{n}}$$

At the first sight, I thought that this expression cannot have an elementary closed form. But then I used a calculator and something strange or rather miraculous happened. Both the terms above have very neat and clean closed form or rather both evaluate to a real number. The first term equals $\frac{\pi}{3}$ and the second term equals $\frac{\pi^2}{18}$

How can a series, that is integer based, evaluate to an irrational number and that too $\pi$. I'm having a hard time digesting this fact let alone proving the result. Any help is greatly appreciated.

Edit: I understood that integer based series can take irrational values in many cases. But still I'm not able to prove the results that the calculator gave me. Please guide me.

Best Answer

From the series expansion for $\arcsin$, we have

$$\frac{\arcsin(x)}x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\binom{2n}n}{2n+1} \left(\frac x2\right)^{2n}$$

and from its square,

$$2\arcsin^2(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2\binom{2n}n} \left(2x\right)^{2n}$$

Both series converge for $x\in[-1,1]$; pick the right value(s) to recover the sums in question.

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