Induced morphism between affine schemes is injective

affine-schemesalgebraic-geometry

$\DeclareMathOperator{\Spec}{Spec}$

Problem

Let $X = \Spec A$ be an affine scheme and $\Spec B = Y \subset X$ an affine open subset of $X$.
Let $\rho$ be the restriction map of $\mathcal{O}_X$. We have
$$ f_\rho \colon \Spec B \ni \mathfrak{q} \mapsto \rho_{XY}^{-1}(\mathfrak{q}) \in \Spec A . $$
Is $f_\rho$ injective ?

My attempt

We have a morphism of schemes such that:
$$ i \colon Y \hookrightarrow X , \quad \rho_{U, U \cap Y} = i^\#(U) \colon \mathcal{O}_X(U) \to
i_*\mathcal{O}_Y(U) = \mathcal{O}_X(U \cap Y) , $$

Thus we have a homomorphism of rings
$$ \rho_{XY} = i^\#(X) \colon A \to B . $$
This induces a morphism between affine schemes:
$$ f_\rho \colon \Spec B \ni \mathfrak{q} \mapsto \rho_{XY}^{-1}(\mathfrak{q}) \in \Spec A . $$
Then, we have $i = \Spec\rho$ (e.g. Lemma 2.3.23 of Liu's AGAC).
Since $i$ is injective, $f_\rho$ is also injective.

I want to ask…

  1. Is $f_\rho$ injective ?
  2. If so, is my proof correct?

I will be grateful for any help! Thank you!

Best Answer

Your solution is essentially correct. One thing to note is that $f_\rho$ is not a scheme morphism as it is written; it does not mention the action on the ringed structures of $X$ and $Y$.

The global section of the map $i^\#: \mathcal{O}_X \to i_*\mathcal{O}_Y$ is precisely $\rho_{X,Y}: A \to B$ so that by the proof of Liu's Lemma 2.3.23, $i$ and $f_\rho$ are the same map on sets $\operatorname{Spec} B \to \operatorname{Spec} A$. As a map on sets, $i$ is assumed to be injective so we're done. This is pretty much your solution.

The confusing thing here is that we're identifying $Y$ with the set $\operatorname{Spec} B$, which is somewhat of an abuse of notation. There is no harm in this (it is very standard and helpful abuse) but if you wanted to be very explicit, you could fix an isomorphism $Y \to \operatorname{Spec} B$.

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