Can anyone please tell what is the induced map from mapping cone of f into Z? Also please explain how H and g induced G.
Thanks in advance
Best Answer
A map $f: X \to Y$ is nullhomotopic iff there is an extension to $\tilde{f}:CX \to Y$ - you can just define $\tilde{f}\left(x, t\right) = h_t\left(x\right)$ where $h_t$ is the nullhomotopy.
$C_f$ can be constructed as the pushout $CX \cup_f Y$, so by the universal property of pushout, mapping out of it is the same as mapping from $CX \sqcup Y$ in a way that that agrees on the image of $f$. A map from a disjoint union is the same as a pair of maps from each of the components. $H$ is then the extension of the composition to the cone, and $g$ is the given map, and they agree on $f$, thus define a map from the mapping cone.
If you take $p$ to be the quotient map $p:(M(f),X \times \{0\})\to(C(f),P)$ (where $P$ is the point $X \times \{0 \}$ is collapsed to) the map this $p$ induces in homology is what I believe you are looking for. It's the only candidate I can think of off the top of my head
for a 'natural' choice of homomorphism between the two, indeed it should be an isomorphism. (Note that the reduced homology of $C(f)$ is just the homology of the pair $(C(f),P)$, so that looks reasonable.)
Regarding your first question, note that for example the neighbourhood $ X \times [0,1/2) \subseteq cyl(f)$ of $X \times {0}$ deformation retracts onto it by the explicit $ (x,t,s) \mapsto (x,(1-s)*t) $.
Regarding the question about the long exact sequence, it follows from the above by the following observations:
The mapping cylinder $ cyl(f) $ deformation retracts onto $ Y $.
The homologies of homotopy equivalent spaces (e.g. deformation retracts) are isomorphic, hence
$$
H_n(Y) \simeq H_n(cyl(f))
$$
The good pair discussed above $ (cyl(f), X \times {0}) $ gives rise to a long exact sequence of homology
$$
\ldots \rightarrow H_{n+1}(cyl(f),X \times {0})\rightarrow H_n (X \times {0})\rightarrow H_n(cyl(f))\rightarrow H_n(cyl(f),X \times {0}) \rightarrow \ldots
$$
Therefore, by using the last comment you wrote down, that is that
$$
H_n(cyl(f),X)=H_n(cone(f))
$$
one obtains the long exact sequence above.
Best Answer
A map $f: X \to Y$ is nullhomotopic iff there is an extension to $\tilde{f}:CX \to Y$ - you can just define $\tilde{f}\left(x, t\right) = h_t\left(x\right)$ where $h_t$ is the nullhomotopy.
$C_f$ can be constructed as the pushout $CX \cup_f Y$, so by the universal property of pushout, mapping out of it is the same as mapping from $CX \sqcup Y$ in a way that that agrees on the image of $f$. A map from a disjoint union is the same as a pair of maps from each of the components. $H$ is then the extension of the composition to the cone, and $g$ is the given map, and they agree on $f$, thus define a map from the mapping cone.