Imaginary axis of a complex analytic function has zero measure

analytic-functionscomplex-analysislebesgue-measuremeasure-theory

It is established in [1] that the zero set of a non-constant real analytic function on $\mathbb{R}^d$ has measure zero. To me, this result should intuitively extend to the entire imaginary axis of a non-constant complex analytic function since this is a measure zero set with respect to $\mathbb{C}$. But, I'm having a hard time showing it, particularly since the imaginary axis is an uncountably infinite set. Any suggestions here or is this not necessarily true for some obvious reason?

Best Answer

You can use the canonical identification $\mathbb C = \mathbb R^2$, which happens to preserve measure, together with the fact that the imaginary axis is the zero set of the nonconstant real analytic function $f(x,y)=x$.

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