If two random variables are independent, why isn’t their min and max

probabilityprobability theorystatistics

Suppose $X_1, X_2$ are independent $U(0, 1)$ random variables, and

$$Y = \min(X_1, X_2) $$
$$Z = \max(X_1, X_2) $$

By this question, they $Y$ and $Z$ should be independent:

Are functions of independent variables also independent?

But by this answer the covariance is not zero:

What is cov(X,Y), where X=min(U,V) and Y=max(U,V) for independent uniform(0,1) variables U and V?

How do I reconcile these two things? The $\min$ and $\max$ are a function of independent random variables, yet they have covariance.

Best Answer

If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are independent, the first link you provided proves that $f(X_1)$ and $g(X_2)$ are independent. But that's not the situation that you have; here you're looking at $f(X_1, X_2)$ and $g(X_1, X_2)$.

In the case of max and min of independent uniform variables, the max and min are not independent, since their covariance is nonzero. Another way to see this: if you have knowledge of the value of the min, then the other variable (the max) cannot be less than this value; this constraint isn't present in the absence of that knowledge.