If sequences $x_n$ and $y_n$ in a metric space converge to the same limit, does $d(x_n, y_n)$ converge

analysiscauchy-sequencesgeneral-topologymetric-spaces

$(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ are sequences in a metric space $M$ with $\lim_{n\to\infty} x_n = \lim_{n\to\infty} y_n = a$. Show that given $\varepsilon>0$ there exists $n_0$ such that $d(x_n, y_n)<\varepsilon$ $\forall n≥n_0$

Hello, this is from my course in general topology. I know I'm supposed to use the definition of convergence for $x_n$ and $y_n$ and the triangle inequality, but I can't seem to get it right. Any help?

Best Answer

Let $\varepsilon > 0.$

Since we know that $x_n \to L$, we know that there exists $N_x$ such that when $n>N_x,$ then $d(x_n,L)<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$.

Likewise, since $y_n \to L$, we know that there exists $N_y$ such that when $n>N_y$, $ $ $d(y_n,L)< \frac{\varepsilon}{2}.$

Set $N =$max$\{N_x,N_y\}$.

Then when $n >N,$ by the Triangle Inequality: $$d(x_n,y_n) \leq d(x_n,L) + d(y_n,L) = \frac{\varepsilon}{2} + \frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon.$$

Thus, we have shown that if $x_n \to L$ and $y_n \to L,$ $d(x_n,y_n) \to 0.$ $\square$