If $\lim_{n\to \infty}\mu(B_n\setminus A_n )= 0 \& A_n\subset E\subset B_n$, then is $E$ measurable

lebesgue-measuremeasure-theoryreal-analysis

I've asked the following question here:

Let $E,A_n,B_n$ be subsets of $\mathbb{R}^k$ with $A_n\subset E\subset B_n$. Suppose that $A_n,B_n$ are measurable sets and $$\lim_{n\to \infty} \mu(B_n \setminus A_n) = 0$$

Is $E$ also measurable?$\mu$ is a generic measure.

In the comments, I was given a hint to take $E$ as a Lebesgue measurable but not Borel measurable set and sandwich that between two Borel sets of same measure. One such $E$ that I could think of is the standard example given using Cantor functions:

Let $\psi (x)=x+\phi(x)$ where $\phi(x)$ is the Cantor function(continuous and non-decreasing). Thus $\psi:[0,1]\to [0,2]$ is invertible and $\psi,\psi^{-1}$ map Borel sets to Borel sets. Choose a non-Borel subset $S\subset \psi(C)$, then $E=\psi^{-1}(C)$ is Lebesgue measurable but not Borel measurable. What Borel sets can I use to sandwich $E$ which can be expressed as a limit of other Borel sets?

Best Answer

Take $E\subseteq \Bbb{R}$ a bounded measurable set that is not Borel.

Then by regularity of the Lebesgue measure there is a bounded $F_{\sigma}$ set $F$ and a bounded $G_{\delta}$ set $G$ such that $F\subseteq E \subseteq G$

and $F=\bigcup_nF_n$ and $G=\bigcap_n G_n$ and $G_1$ has finite measure.

Take $O_n=\bigcap_{k=1}^nG_n$ and $K_n=\bigcup_{k=1}^nF_n$

and $\mu(O_n \setminus K_n) \to \mu(G\setminus F)=0$

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