If $(f_n’)$ converges uniformly on an interval, does $(f_n)$ converge

pointwise-convergencereal-analysissequence-of-functionuniform-convergence

Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of functions that are all differentiable on an interval A, and suppose the sequence of derivatives $(f_n')$ converges uniformly on A to a limit function $g$. Does it follow that $(f_n)$ converges to a limit function f on A?

What I tried:

As $(f_n')$ converges uniformly to $g$, we may write that the limit of integral of $(f_n')$ is the integral of the limit of $(f_n')$. Hence, $(f_n)$ converges point wise to the integral of $g$.

How does this sound?

Best Answer

If, for each $n\in\Bbb N$, $f_n(x)=n$, then you always have $f_n'(x)=0$. Therefore, $(f_n')_{n\in\Bbb N}$ converges uniformly, but there is no $x\in\Bbb R$ such that $\bigl(f_n(x)\bigr)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ converges.

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