If $f : \mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}$ is Schwartz, is $F(x):=\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \frac{f(y)}{\lvert x-y \rvert} d^3y$ also Schwartz

calculusfunctional-analysisreal-analysisschwartz-space

I am having trouble proving / disproving the question in the title.

That is, let $f : \mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}$ be a real-valued Schwartz function. Then, I wonder if
\begin{equation}
F(x):=\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \frac{f(y)}{\lvert x-y \rvert} d^3y
\end{equation}

is also a Schwartz function.

At least it seems clear from the property of convolution that $F(x)$ is smooth. However, I cannot figure out decay properties of $F(x)$. Could anyone please help me?

Best Answer

$F$ is not necessarily Schwartz. If it was, then its Fourier transform will also be Schwartz. Now since $F = f * |\cdot|^{-1}$, and the Fourier transform of $|\cdot|^{-1}$ as a tempered distribution is $c_3 |\xi|^{-2}$ (where $c_3$ is a dimensional constant), we see that $\hat{F} = c_3\hat f |\cdot|^{-2}$ as convolution corresponds to multiplication on the Fourier side. We could design $\hat f $ to be a smooth compactly supported bump function equal to $1$ on $|\xi| \le 1$ and consequently, $$ \sup_{\xi \in \mathbb{R^3}} c_3|\xi|^{-2} |\hat f(\xi)| = +\infty, $$ i.e. $\hat F$ is not Schwartz.

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