If $f$ has a pole of order $m$ at $z_0$, then $\frac{1}{f}$ has a removable singularity at $z_0$.

complex-analysis

My text book says that

  • If $f$ has a pole of order $m$ at $z_0$, then $\frac{1}{f}$ has a removable singularity at $z_0$, and if we define $(\frac{1}{f})(z_0) = 0$, then $\frac{1}{f}$ has a zero of order $m$ at $z_0$.

But I'm thinking that, since $f = \frac{g(z)}{(z-z_0)^m}$ where $g(z)$ is analytic and nonzero at $z_0$, $\frac{1}{f}$, which equals $\frac{(z-z_0)^m}{g(z)}$, is surely analytic at $z_0$ and has a zero of order $m$ at $z_0$. If it is analytic at $z_0$, then $z_0$ cannot be a singularity point.

Why does my text book say $z_0$ is a removable singularity and define $(\frac{1}{f})(z_0) = 0$?

Best Answer

Your function $\frac{1}{f}$ is only defined on a neighborhood of $z_0$ which excludes $z_0$ so you have to really define it. In fact, $\frac{1}{f}= \frac{(z-z_0)^m}{g(z)}$ does $\textbf{not}$ make sense at $z_0$.