I showed that $AX = b_1$ has a unique solution. Does it mean that the columns of $A$ are linearly independent

linear algebralinear independencematrices

I know that if $AX = b_1$ has infinite possible solutions, then
$AX = b_1$
$\iff A(X_{inh} + X_{hom}) = b_1$
$\implies "AX_{hom} = 0 $ has infinite possible solutions", thus the columns of $A$ are linearly dependent.

I know I can't imply "$AX_{hom} = 0$ has 1 unique solution $(X_{hom} = 0)$" from "$AX = b_1$ has 1 unique solution", since I only showed it for $b_1$ but not for all all $b \in \mathbb{R}^n$. In other words, what if there is a $b_i$, $i\neq1$, such that $AX_{hom}=0$ has infinite possible solutions?

Intuitively I feel like no such $b_i$ exists. Therefore "$AX = b_1$ has a unique solution" implies "the columns of $A$ are linearly independent". But how do I show it?

Best Answer

Yes, you can rather work for the contrapositive statement. Suppose columns of $A$ are linearly dependent then $rank(A)<n$, where $n$ is number of columns in $A$ or equivalently number of variables in the system of equations furnished by $AX=b_1$. Now $rank(A)<n$ implies either infinitely many solutions or no solution i.e. non-uniqueness in either case.

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